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Exploration 1 Module Final

2008-06-05T17:50:00.000+03:00

วันจันทร์, ธันวาคม 24, 2007
CCNA 1 - Final Exam Answers
1
A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.

2
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

3
Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

4
Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password

5
Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6
Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
1000 Base LX

7
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

8
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9
Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

10
Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

11
Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

12
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13
In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

14
A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
router
switch

15
Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
transport

16
Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.) Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17
Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

18
Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

19
When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20
When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
connectionless acknowledgements
upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols

21
A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
enable secret
VTY

22
Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a FTP client
a telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser

23
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The data is encrypted.
The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

24
The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

25
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
Five collision domains exist.

26
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

27
Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
segment1
segment2
segment3
segment4
segment5

28
What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion

29
Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

30
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

32
During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

33
Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

34
Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

35
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

37
Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host's default gateway.
The host's IP address.
The host's primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host's homepage.

38
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

39
Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

40
Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control

41
Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

42
As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

43
Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4

44
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

45
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh

46
Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47
Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

48
Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

49
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

50
Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

Exploration 1 Module 11 answers

2008-06-05T17:48:00.000+03:00

วันจันทร์, ธันวาคม 24, 2007
CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Answers
1
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version

2
Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

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3
Which command is used with an encrypted password to restrict access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router?
RouterA(config)# password encrypted cisco
RouterA(config)# config password encrypted cisco
RouterA(config)# enable password cisco
RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco
RouterA(config)# service-password encryption cisco

4
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

5
The console and virtual terminal passwords have been configured in clear text. Which command will apply encryption to these passwords?
enable secret
password-encrypt
service password-encryption
enable password-encryption

6
What determines the number of simultaneous Telnet connections that can be made to a router?
There is no maximum.
The subnet mask used on the interface.
The number of TCP ports that have been opened up on the router.
The number of available console and aux ports.
The hardware model and the number of vty ports configured with the line vty command.

7
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

8
The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

9
What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

10
Select the true statement regarding the ping and tracert commands.
Tracrt shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.

11
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret classRouterB(config)# line vty 0 4RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret classRouterB(config)# line vty 0 2RouterB(config-vty)# password ciscoRouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret classRouterB(config)# line vty 0RouterB(config-line)# password ciscoRouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret classRouterB(config)# line aux 0RouterB(config-line)# password ciscoRouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret classRouterB(config)# line aux 0RouterB(config-vty)# password ciscoRouterB(config-vty)# login

12
What does the tracert command test?
NIC functionality
the ISP bandwidth
the network path to a destination
the destination application functionality

Exploration 1 Module 10 answers

2008-06-05T17:46:00.000+03:00

1วันจันทร์, ธันวาคม 24, 2007
CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Answers
1
What subnet mask would be used if a company using 172.16.0.0 wants to leave 6 bits for host bits?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.192

2
What is the function of a CSU/DSU?
It converts user data into an acceptable form to be sent over a WAN link.
It protects user data from unauthorized access when transmitted over a WAN.
It limits the geographic area in which a WAN operates.
It converts between temporary and permanent WAN connections.

3
A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

4
What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)
inexpensive
easy to install
requires an AUI adapter
normally used in a WAN environment
normally used in a star topology
distance limitation of 185 meters

5
A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

6
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable

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7
Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

8
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

9
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

10
Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

11
Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

12
What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

13
What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

Exploration 1-Module 9 answers

2008-06-05T17:27:00.000+03:00

วันจันทร์, ธันวาคม 24, 2007
CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Answers
1
When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

2
What are the two dynamic methods used to maintain ARP tables? (Choose two.)
monitor traffic on the local segment
monitor traffic on the local and remote segments
send a Layer 2 broadcast containing an ARP request
send a Layer 3 broadcast containing an ARP request

3
Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C

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4
Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?
route PRINT
arp -a
arp -d
netstat
telnet

5
What are the two basic functions of the ARP protocol? (Choose two.)
resolve known IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses
resolve known MAC to IP addresses
maintain ARP cache in RAM
resolve known IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

6
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

7
Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

8
Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long

9
Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer

10
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

11
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

12
After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

13
Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

14
What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

15
Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

Exploration 1-Module 8 answers

2008-06-05T17:22:00.000+03:00

CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Answers
1
What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket
core, cladding, kevlar, strength material, and outer jacket
core, kevlar, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket
aramid yarn, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket
2
In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
1 and 2
3 and 5
7 and 8
3 and 6
5 and 7
1 and 3

3
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable

4
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

5
Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic

6
Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

8
Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical

9
In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F

10
What encoding scheme does 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet use?
Manchester
Differential Manchester
4B/5B
5B/6B

11
An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter

12
In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)
switch to router
switch to PC
router to PC
switch to hub
hub to router
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13
Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical

14
What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15
Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

16
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

17
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable

18
Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic

19
What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth

20
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

21
An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter

22
Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

23
With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

24
What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

25
XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

26
In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

27
What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

28
Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

29
What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

30
In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F

Exploration 1-Module 7 answers

2008-06-05T17:18:00.000+03:00

วันจันทร์, ธันวาคม 24, 2007
CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers
1
Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
802.3
802.5
802.7
802.11
802.13
802.15

2
What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

3
Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
reliable
point-to-point
nondeterministic
connection-oriented
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach

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4
Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

5
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function

6
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7
Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?
ACL, LMC
MAC, LAC
MAC, LLC
OSI, LLC

8
Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)
collisionless environment
non-deterministic
deterministic
uses first-come, first-served approach
uses a token to transmit data

9
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

10
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
The consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They are represented as decimal values for convenience.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
They are considered physical addresses.

12
A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

13
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

14
Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)
multilink
multipoint connectivity
compression
error checking
authentication
fastlink

15
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

16
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

17
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

18
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

19
What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

20
What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

21
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function

22
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

23
What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

24
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

25
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

26
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

27
What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated
28 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC

29
What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

30
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

Exploration 1-Module 6 answers

2008-06-05T17:14:00.000+03:00

CCNA Exploration 4.0: Network Fundamentals - Chapter 6 Exam Answers [100%]
1How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
1286448* 32
2Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248255.255.255.224* 255.255.255.192255.255.255.240255.255.255.128255.255.255.252
3Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33* IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24/16/20* /27/25/28
5Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.Host A has an overlapping network address.Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.* NAT is required for the host A network.
6What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0* 255.255.255.0255.255.254.0255.255.248.0
7Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.This is a broadcast address.* This is a network address.This is not a valid address.
8What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device* is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domainis altered as packet is forwarded* varies in length* is used to forward packetsuses flat addressing
9What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.0000000010101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111* 10101100. 00011001.01000010.0000000010101100. 00011001.01000010.0110001110101100. 00010001.01000011. 0110001010101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0172.16.192.0172.16.192.128* 172.16.192.160172.16.192.168172.16.192.176
11Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.* Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.The default gateway device is not operating.A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
* The router will discard the packet.The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.* The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128* 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254* 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224
14Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
* larger address spacefaster routing protocols* data types and classes of service* authentication and encryptionimproved host naming conventionssame addressing scheme as IPv4
15Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary addinghexadecimal andingbinary divisionbinary multiplication* binary ANDing
16What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
securityheader format simplification* expanded addressing capabilitiesaddressing simplification
17Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1* 10.35.66.70* 192.168.99.5* 172.18.88.90192.33.55.89172.35.16.5
18Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.* Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.* IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
19Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26* 172.16.4.155 /26* 172.16.4.193 /26172.16.4.95 /27172.16.4.159 /27* 172.16.4.207 /27
20What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet* a networkan octeta radi
21Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.The default gateway is a network address.The default gateway is a broadcast address.* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
22Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations* servers* network printers* routersremote workstationslaptops

Exploration 1-Module 5 answers

2008-06-05T17:08:00.000+03:00

CCNA Exploration 4.0: Network Fundamentals - Chapter 5 Exam Answers 1In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?* destination network addresssource network addresssource MAC addresswell known port destination address
2What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?source and destination MACsource and destination application protocolsource and destination port number*source and destination IP address
3In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.* The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?type-of-serviceidentificationflags* time-to-liveheader checksum
5Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?host portionbroadcast address* network portiongateway address
6
Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?192.135.250.1192.31.7.1192.133.219.0* 192.133.219.1
7If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?The host is unable to communicate on the local network.* The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.There is no impact on communications.
8What is the purpose of a default gateway?physically connects a computer to a networkprovides a permanent address to a computeridentifies the network to which a computer is connectedidentifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network* identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?dynamicinterior* staticstandard
10When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.* The router discards the packet.The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.* The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)gateways* purposephysical addressingsoftware version* geographic location* ownership
12What is a component of a routing table entry?the MAC address of the interface of the routerthe destination Layer 4 port numberthe destination host address*the next-hop address
13Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)* routerhubswitch* firewallaccess pointbridge
14What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)too few broadcasts* performance degradation* security issueslimited management responsibility* host identificationprotocol compatibility
15Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?3* 457811
16Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.* If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet. * If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.* If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?10.10.10.26127.0.0.1* 10.10.10.610.10.10.1224.0.0.0
18Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)* Replace S2 with a router.Place all servers on S1.Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.* Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)* 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.* 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)require no device configuration* provide routers with up-to-date routing tablesrequire less processing power than static routes require* consume bandwidth to exchange route informationprevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21What statement describes the purpose of a default route?A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.* A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

Exploration 1-Module 4 answers

2008-06-05T17:06:00.000+03:00

CCNA Exploration 4.0: Network Fundamentals - Chapter 4 Exam Answers 1Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.* A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.* The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?1353* 8010241728
3Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?sequencingflow control* acknowledgmentssource and destination
4Which is an important characteristic of UDP?acknowledgement of data delivery* minimal delays in data deliveryhigh reliability of data deliverysame order data delivery
5Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?create a Layer 1 jam signal* reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledgedsend a RESET bit to the hostchange the window size in the Layer 4 header
6Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?* session establishmentsegment retransmitdata transfersession disconnect
7Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?236* 185034313475
8Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?to synchronize equipment speed for sent datato synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order* to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming datato synchronize window size on the serverto simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?The packets will not be delivered.The packets will be retransmitted from the source.* The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?0 to 255256 to 1022* 0 to 10231024 to 204749153 to 65535
11Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?TCPIP* UDPHTTPDNS
12What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)* flow control* low overheadconnectionlessconnection-orientedsequence and acknowledgements
13What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?sequence numberssession establishment* window sizeacknowledgments
14What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?destination logical addresssource physical addressdefault gateway address* source port
15Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segmentto identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segmentto determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data* to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate applicationto allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)identifies the destination network* identifies source and destination hostsidentifies the communicating applications* identifies multiple conversations between the hostsidentifies the devices communicating over the local media
17Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?* encapsulationflow controlconnectionless services* session establishment* numbering and sequencingbest effort delivery
18Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?applicationpresentationsession* transportnetwork
19Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)This is a UDP header.* This contains a Telnet request.This contains a TFTP data transfer.The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.* This is a TCP header.
20Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?The two applications exchange data.TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.* UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client

2008-06-05T17:05:00.000+03:00

Exploration 1-Module 3 answers

2008-06-05T17:03:00.000+03:00

CCNA Exploration 4.0: Network Fundamentals - Chapter 3 Exam Answers
1 A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)* centralized administrationdoes not require specialized software* security is easier to enforcelower cost implementationprovides a single point of failure
2 Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)centralized security* easy to createvery scalable* no centralized equipment required* centralized administrator not requiredcentralized control of assets
3 Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)ASPFTPHTML* HTTP* HTTPSIP
4 Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)routes email to the MDA on other servers* receives email from the client's MUAreceives email via the POP3 protocol* passes email to the MDA for final delivery* uses SMTP to route email between serversdelivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
5 What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?HTTPSSHFQDN* DNSTelnetSMTP
6 What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)ARP* DNSPPP* SMTP* POPICMP
7 What are the two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)* applicationsprocesses* servicesdialogssyntaxdaemons
8 What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)* acts as both a client and server within the same communicationrequires centralized account administration* hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files* can be used in client-server networksdoes not require specialized softwarecentralized authentication is required
9 Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts* HTTP transfers data from a web server to a clientPOP delivers email from the client to the server email serverSMTP supports file sharingTelnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
10 Which are valid DNS resource record types? (Choose three.)* A* NSMTA* MXFQDNMAU
11 Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)MDAIMAP* MTAPOP* SMTPMUA
12 What is the primary disadvantage of telnet?does not support authenticationconsumes network bandwidthutilizes client resourcesnot widely available* does not support encryptionrequires remote access
13 What are three common HTTP message types? (Choose three.)* GETPUSH* POSTHTMLUPLOAD* PUT
14 Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)* a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devicesa protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices* a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Interneta protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer* a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network desvice and a management console
15 What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTMLHTTP*FTPTelnet
16 Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts*HTTP transfers data from a web server to a clientPOP delivers email from the client to the server email serverSMTP supports file sharing*Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
17 A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.*Security is difficult to enforce.Specialized operating system software is required.File permissions are controlled by a single computer.*A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
18 Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physicalsessionnetworkpresentationapplication*transport
19 Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
*80126115533391265520
20 What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalableone way data flow*decentralized resourcescentralized user accounts*resource sharing without a dedicated server
21 What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCPDNS*SMBSMTPTelnet

Exploration 1-Module 2 answers

2008-06-05T17:01:00.000+03:00

CCNA Exploration 4.0: Network Fundamentals - Chapter 2 Exam Answers
1Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)NetworkTransport* Physical* Data LinkSession
2What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?* supports error detectionensures ordered arrival of dataprovides delivery to correct destinationidentifies the devices on the local networkassists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?No address is added.The logical address is added.* The physical address is added.The process port number is added.
4What device is considered an intermediary device?file serverIP phonelaptopprinter* switch
5Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?physical* data linknetworktransport
6Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)* determine pathways for datainitiate data communications* retime and retransmit data signalsoriginate the flow of data* manage data flowsfinal termination point for data flow
7What can be identified by examining the network layer header?the destination device on the local media* the path to use to reach the destination hostthe bits that will be transferred over the mediathe source application or process creating the data
8What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transportapplication, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentationapplication, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network* application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physicalpresentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)Network A -- WAN* Network B -- WAN* Network C -- LANNetwork B -- MANNetwork C -- WAN* Network A -- LAN
10What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)allows modification of the original data before transmission* identifies pieces of data as part of the same communicationenables consistent network paths for communication* ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device* enables the reassembly of complete messagestracks delay between end devices
11Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?pipingPDUstreamingmultiplexing* encapsulation
12What is a PDU?corruption of a frame during transmissiondata reassembled at the destinationretransmitted packets due to lost communication* a layer specific encapsulation
13Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"the destination device* an end devicean intermediate devicea media device
14Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?A, C, DB, E, G, HC, D, G, H, I, JD, E, F, H, I, J* E, F, H, I, J
15Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?sourceendtransfer* intermediary
16Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)* A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.* The network is administered by a single organization.The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.* A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?WANMAN* LANWLAN
18What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?path determination and packet switching* data representation, encoding, and controlreliability, flow control, and error detectiondetailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access itthe division of segments into packets
19Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?manage data flowsoriginate data flow* retime and retransmit data signalsdetermine pathways for data
20What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?to identify devices on the local mediato identify the hops between source and destinationto identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the networkto identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating* to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)* define the structure of layer specific PDU'sdictate how to accomplish layer functions* outline the functions necessary for communications between layerslimit hardware compatibility* require layer dependent encapsulationseliminate standardization among vendors

Discovery1 Module 9

2008-06-04T17:47:00.000+03:00

Module 9

Close Window

1 What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the
router and the ISP? (Choose two.)

router status page ***
wireless card settings
router operating system version
local host operating system version
connectivity status as indicated by LEDs ***

2 Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the
Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer
method is being used?

Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration***.
Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

3 What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call
from a user who cannot access the company web server?

Reboot the web server.
Replace the NIC of the computer.
Ask the user to log off and log on again.
Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message
displays.***

4 A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source
of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a
blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this
indicate?

Self-diagnostics have not completed.
The power supply is the source of the problem.
The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.***
The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

5

Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but
the wired host can. What is the problem?

The host WEP key is incorrect.
The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

6 Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?

ipconfig
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /renew ***
ipconfig /release

7 Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home
networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)

having a backup ISR
running network monitoring applications ***
documenting the troubleshooting process
keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions ***
keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

8 Which two items should be added to the documentation following a
troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)

final resolution ***
repetitive measures
number of people involved in the problem
accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps ***

9 Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections
and wiring issues?

top-down
bottom-up ***
substitution
divide-and-conquer

10

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network
shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

11

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network
shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable. ***
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

12 When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an
ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)

physical address
MAC address
default gateway ***
static IP address
dynamic IP address ***
DNS server address ***

13 A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session
between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a
cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could
help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)

Ensure the correct cable is used. ***
Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit. ***

14 A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless
access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for
hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)

configuring NAT
broadcasting the SSID ***
using open authentication ***
enabling MAC address filters
using the default internal IP address***
using DHCP to provide IP addresses

15 A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the
network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?

A straight-through cable is being used
The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
A crossover cable is being used. ***

Take Assessment - DHomesb Chapter 9 - Networking for Home and Small
Businesses (Version 4.0)

16 What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name
resolution?

ipconfig
netstat
nslookup ***
tracert

17 Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)

hardware failure***
software configuration
devices not able to ping
loose cable connections***
device driver configuration

18 Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks?
(Choose two.)

identifying when the problem occurred***
determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
updating network diagrams and documentation
implementing the solution to the problem ***
running a network baseline test
determining the cost of fixing the problem

19 A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet
connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the
technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What
troubleshooting technique does this represent?

top-down
bottom-up
substitution
trial-and-error ***
divide-and-conquer

20 Network baselines should be performed in which two situations?
(Choose two.)

after the network is installed and running optimally ***
after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
after major changes are implemented on the network ***
after several computers are added to the network
at the end of the work week

21 Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a
wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)

SSID ***
authentication ***
MD5 checksum
antennae type
encryption key ***
MAC address filters

22 What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet
traversing the Internet?

ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
ping
tracert ***

23 How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?

Remote access uses a live chat feature.
Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables
if necessary.
Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the
site***.
FAQs can be consulted more easily.

Discovery1 Module 7

2008-06-04T17:45:00.000+03:00

MODULE 7

Take Assessment - DHomesb Chapter 7 - Networking for Home and Small
Businesses (Version 4.0)

1 Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true?
(Choose two.)

tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs***
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
responsible for determining the signal strength
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID***
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

2 Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?

connects two networks with a wireless link***
stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
increases the strength of a wireless signal

3 What is the difference between using open authentication and
pre-shared keys?

Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not
require a password.
Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys
are used with wired networks.
Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication
does not require a secret word.***
Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access
point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

4 What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking?
(Choose two.)

speed
security
mobility***
reduced installation time***
allows users to share more resources
not susceptible to interference from other devices

5 What type of authentication does an access point use by default?

Open***
PSK
WEP
EAP

6 What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent
intercepted data from being read by a hacker?

address filtering
authentication
broadcasting
encryption***
passphrase encoding

7 Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled
on an access point?

requires no authentication***
uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
requires the use of an authentication server
requires a mutually agreed upon password

8 Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is
used to _____ wireless networks.

encrypt; authenticate users on***
filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
identify the wireless network; compress data on
create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

9 Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?

cell
antenna
access point
wireless bridge
wireless client***

10 What are two authentication methods that an access point could use?
(Choose two.)

WEP
WPA
EAP***
ASCII
pre-shared keys***

11 What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define
what type of data can enter the wireless network?

encryption
hacking block
traffic filtering***
MAC address filtering
authentication

12 Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?

created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network***
created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a
distribution system
created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

13

Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated
router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point
to be known to nearby clients?

Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel
SSID Broadcast***

14 What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)

8 bit
16 bit
32 bit
64 bit***
128 bit***

15

Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys
integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?

The router supports encryption and authentication.
The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.***
The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio
frequencies.

16 Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy
access.***
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless
networks.

17 Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further
distances than Bluetooth technology?

transmits at much lower frequencies
has higher power output***
transmits at much higher frequencies
uses better encryption methods

18 What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose
three.)

more secure
longer range
anytime, anywhere connectivity ***
easy and inexpensive to install***
ease of using licensed air space
ease of adding additional devices***

19 What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?

IEEE has approved the device.
The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard
that also display the Wi-Fi logo.***
The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless
standards.

20 A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the
wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the
number of access points needed? (Choose three.)

the size of the building***
the number of solid interior walls in the building***
the presence of microwave ovens in several offices***
the encryption method used on the wireless network
the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

21 Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose
two.)

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to
connect.***
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking
easier.***
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to
launch an attack.

Discovery1 Module 6

2008-06-04T17:43:00.000+03:00

Module 6

1
What information is contained in an IP header?

source and destination IP addresses

source and destination MAC addresses

only destination IP and MAC addresses

both source and destination IP and MAC addresses***

2
A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process.
In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?

1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

1) remove Ethernet header and trailer*****
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

3
Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to
198.133.219.25?

DHCP

DNS***

FTP

HTTP

POP

SMTP

4
Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network
client in a corporate environment?

DNS***

DHCP

e-mail

FTP

Telnet

web

5
Which port number is used by SMTP?

20

21

25***

26

110

6
You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your
decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?

UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.***

TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video
delivery.

Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and
guaranteed delivery.

Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so
no transport protocol should be used.

7
Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate
the domain names into their associated IP addresses?

Uniform Resource Locator

Network redirector server

SNMP server

DNS server***

8

Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?

IM

FTP

HTTP***

SNMP

VoIP

9
What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)

source IP address

source MAC address***

destination IP address

destination MAC address***

error-checking information***

10
What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and
interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?

protocol hierarchy

protocol modeling

protocol stack ***

protocol layering

11
Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each
other?

FTP

HTTP

TFTP

SMTP***

POP

SNMP

12
What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model,
starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?

data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session,
application

physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation,
application

physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session,
application

physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation,
application***

application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network,
physical

13
Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

UDP

FTP***

IP

SMTP***

TCP

14
Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

TCP***

SMTP

UDP

SNMP

15
Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

Application***

Physical

Internet***

Network Access***

Presentation

16
An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the
server know which of these applications should handle an incoming
segment?

The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.

The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.

The segment destination port number identifies the application that
should handle it.***

The source port number is associated with one of these well known
server applications.

17
A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What
does www.cisco.com represent?

the IP address of a web server***

a physical network address

the closest router interface to the source

the source IP address in the data transmission

18
Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?

4

2

1***

3

19
A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as
its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the
encapsulated data?

removes the IP header

removes the TCP header

passes data to the application layer

removes the Ethernet header and trailer***

20
What type of server would use IMAP?

DNS

DHCP

e-mail***

FTP

Telnet

web

21
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?

It breaks network communications into larger parts.

It increases complexity.

It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.***

It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and
software communications.

22
What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other
logged in users in real time?

blog

e-mail

web mail

instant messaging****

Discovery1 Module 4

2008-06-04T17:41:00.000+03:00

Module 4

Take Assessment - DHomesb Chapter 4 - Networking for Home and Small
Businesses (Version 4.0)

1

Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP
UTP
coax
fiber ***??

2

Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?

Crossover***
eight coax channels
multimode fiber
single-mode fiber
straight-through

3 What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM
device in their network?

analog technology
cable modem technology
digital subscriber line technology***
wireless technology

4 What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and
installing cabling? (Choose three.)

pinouts***
cable lengths***
connector color
connector types ***
cost per meter (foot)
tensile strength of plastic insulator

5

Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP
UTP ***
coax
fiber

6 Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the
Internet? (Choose three.)

an IP address***
file sharing enabled
a network connection
server services enabled***
access to an Internet service provider***
an address obtained directly from the RIR

7 Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose
two.)

between buildings
in a home office network***
where EMI is an issue
in a cable TV network
inside a school building***
in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

8 What term describes each router through which a packet travels when
moving between source and destination networks?

NOC
ISP
hop***
segment

9 Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)

uses RJ-11 jacks
uses RJ-45 jacks***
supports only data transmissions
allows quick rearrangements of network connections***
forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

10 Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?

to connect end users using cable technology***
to connect end users using analog technology
to connect end users using wireless technology
to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

11 What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

between a client and a host
between two local networks
between a computer and a switch
between an ISP and a home-based LAN***

12 What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?

Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
Upload speeds and download speeds are different.***
Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

13 Which definition describes the term Internet?

a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
a network of networks that connects countries around the world ***
a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

14 What are three characteristics of business class ISP service?
(Choose three.)

fast connections***
extra web space***
free Windows upgrade
cheapest cost available to all users
additional e-mail accounts***
replacement hardware at no cost

15 What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?

data security
no loss of signal
no electromagnetic interference
reliable data communications ***

16 What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that
interconnect ISPs?

Internet LAN
ISP backbone
Internet gateways
Internet providers
Internet backbone***

17 What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair
(UTP) cabling?

ST
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45 ***

18 Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point
in one package?

hub
bridge
modem
repeater
ISR ***

19 What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)

requires no preplanning
aids in isolation of cabling problems***
protects cables from physical damage***
provides compliance with future standards
provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20 What does the tracert command test?

NIC functionality
the ISP bandwidth
the network path to a destination***
the destination application functionality

21 What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP
cabling? (Choose two.)

installing cables in conduit
having improper termination***
losing light over long distances
installing low quality cable shielding
using low quality cables or connectors***

Discovery1 Module 2

2008-06-02T19:21:00.000+03:00

module2

1
The Lesson TaskMaster application from ChalkBoard has a problem. Every
time the software is installed and loaded on a Windows XP-based Dell
computer, and the moment something is typed followed by a tab, two tabs
are inserted instead of one. What would be the best solution to this
problem?

Uninstall and then reinstall Lesson TaskMaster.

Download, install, and apply a patch from Dell.

Download, install, and apply a patch from Microsoft.

Download, install, and apply a patch from ChalkBoard.***

2
What two items are available from the About Windows option through the
Windows Explorer Help menu? (Choose two.)

a list of troubleshooting links

the end-user license agreement***

a list of installed hardware devices

the date of the last Windows update

the operating system version number***

a list of terms with links to definitions

3
Which Windows XP Automatic Update option allows you to select the time
when a Windows update is executed?

Automatic (recommended).***

Install updates from the Windows Update web site.

Notify me but don’t automatically download or install them.

Download updates for me, but let me choose when to install them.

4
Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing
commands at a command prompt?

CLI***

GUI

redirector

kernel translator

5
Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)

Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.***

A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a
data partition.***

User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.

A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.

Each partition requires a different file system type.

6
What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network
configurations dynamically?

Each computer receives a permanent IP address.

A network administrator enters information on each computer.

Each computer requests configuration information from a server.***

An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer
and stores that configuration information.

7
A computer is in the Advanced Technology Center computer room on the
second floor, room number 217, second computer on the second row from the
front (five computers per row). Which computer name would be most
appropriate to apply during the operating system installation process?

ATC_217_7***

E_217_2ndrow_7

ATC_2ndfloor_217_2ndrow

E-217-2ndrow-2ndcomputer

8
Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist
when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)

Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.

Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum
requirements.***

Complete a full backup of all important files and data.

Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all
contents.

Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the
existing operating system prior to upgrading.***

9
What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system
shell? (Choose two.)

CLI***

OS

GUI***

NIC

kernel

10
Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be
duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)

partition

file system

computer name***

IP address***

operating system

Take Assessment - DHomesb Chapter 2 - Networking for Home and Small
Businesses (Version 4.0)
11
Which operating system patch installation method is used when a user is
notified of a security update for remotely accessing a computer, but
wishes not to install this patch?

manual

automatic

semi-automatic

prompt for permission***

12
An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition
needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled.
Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?

clean install***

upgrade

multi-boot

virtualization

13
You must select an operating system for the faculty at a college. All
of the questions below would be logical for you to ask except one.
Determine the illogical question.

How much does the operating system cost and does the college have
funding?

Is the technical support staff at the college able to support the
operating systems being considered?

Do the operating systems being considered have the ability to support
the ports available on the faculty computers?****

What types of applications do the faculty use and are they compatible
with the operating systems being considered?

14
Which Windows file system is more likely to be used in a business
environment?

ext2

ext3

NTFS***

FAT16

FAT32

15
What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network

provides a permanent address to a computer

identifies the network to which a computer is connected

identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely
identifies it to the rest of the network

identifies the device that allows local network computers to
communicate with devices on other networks***

16
What Explorer menu option is used to determine the Windows XP version
installed on a computer?

Edit

Help***

View

Tools

Favorites

17
Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to
allow that computer to send and receive information across networks?
(Choose three.)

IP address***

subnet mask***

closest server

default gateway***

operating system

network card manufacturer

18
Windows XP has a known problem with specific Intel processors. What is
the best course of action to take in this situation?

Power off the computer and reinstall the CPU.

Delete Windows XP and perform a clean install.

Reinstall Windows XP to the same hard drive partition.

Reinstall Windows XP to a different hard drive partition.

Download and install the Windows patch that fixes this problem.***

Replace the Intel processor with one that is approved by Microsoft.

19
What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released
under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)

full access to source code***

software often available free***

structured development cycle

can be expensive to purchase

limits what end-user can do with code

support normally user-based and often free***

20
Which statement is true about installing an operating system on
computers in a networked environment?

The computer name must be unique for all computers on the same
network.***

The operating system must be the same on all computers on the same
network.

The amount of installed RAM must be the same on all computers on the
same network.

The operating system must have the latest patch applied during the
installation or it will not participate in the network.

21
Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to
ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)

type of keyboard

printer requirements

required video memory

required hard disk space***

processor type and speed***

recommended amount of RAM***

module 3

Take Assessment - DHomesb Chapter 3 - Networking for Home and Small
Businesses (Version 4.0)

1
What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?

prevents collisions on a local network

keeps broadcasts contained within a local network

controls which hosts have access to the network

controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network***

2
What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?

It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.

It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.

It enables the user to share printers.

It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.***

3
Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?

logical addresses only

IP addresses only

MAC addresses only***

broadcast addresses only

4
Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the
message to all other ports?

modem

switch

router

hub***

5
Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same
LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment
asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address
and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in
this scenario?

ARP***

DHCP

DNS

WINS

6
An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two
other network devices? (Choose two.)

NIC

switch***

e-mail server

application server

wireless access point***

7
Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address***

source Ethernet address

8

Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that
a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?

It sends the data packet as it was received.

It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original
frame.

It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the
original data packet.

It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination
IP and MAC addresses.***

9
If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward,
what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router
from dropping it?

dynamic route

default route***

destination route

default destination

10
Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)

naming scheme***

IP addressing scheme***

length of cable runs

physical location of networking devices

specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and
hosts

11
What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?

a server hosted by the ISP

the router interface closest to the computer

a server managed by a central IT department

the switch interface that connects to the computer***

12
Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message
format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the
appropriate medium?

flow control

encapsulation***

encoding

multicasting

access method

13
What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?

detects transmission errors***

provides timing for transmission

contains the start of frame delimiter

indicates which protocol will receive the frame

14
Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose
two.)

adds complexity to networks

encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols

provides consistent interconnections across networks***

ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment

simplifies new product development***

15
What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?

They identify a specific NIC on a host device.

They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.

They provide vendor-specific information about the host.

They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.***

They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

16

Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1
wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?

H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all
devices.***

H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to
H2.

H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all
devices.

H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to
H2.

17
Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet
is to be sent?

ARP table

routing table***

network table

forwarding table

18
Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access
layer? (Choose two.)

router

hub***

switch***

server

computer

19
A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is
currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?

It drops the frame.

It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.

It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination
port.****

It returns the frame to the sender.

20
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is
the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is
unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks***

The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is
unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.

There is no impact on communications.

21
What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet
standard?

type of cable used

type of data transmission

speed of transmission***
type of connector required

maximum length of cable allowed

CCNA1 Module 1

2008-06-02T18:20:00.000+03:00

Module 1

What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?

bits

pixels

hertz***

bytesx

2
Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges
from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?

CPU

surge suppressor***

motherboard

hard drive

3
What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose
two.)

usually a lower cost***

exact components may be specified

extended waiting period for assembly

adequate for performing most general applications***

suited for customers with special needs

4
What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?

dry and non humid conditions

carpeted floor

grounding strap***

uncluttered work space

5
Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer
system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the
machine?

RAM

CPU***

video card

sound card

operating system

6
A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer.
Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?

RAM***

NIC

video card

sound card

storage device

7
Administrators at a multi-campus college need access to their schedules
wherever they go. Which computing device would be the most
appropriate?

PDA***

laptop

desktop

tablet PC

cell phone

mainframe

8
How many values are possible using a single binary digit?

1

2***

4

8

9

16

9
How is a server different from a workstation computer?

The server works as a standalone computer.

The server provides services to clients.***

The workstation has fewer applications installed.

The workstation has more users who attach to it.

10
Which adapter enables a computer system to exchange information with
other systems on a local network?

video card

sound card

modem card

network interface card***

11
In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by
default when components are installed?

manually assigned by the operating system

manually assigned by the administrator

statically assigned by the component to a preset resource

dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system***

12
What are two benefits of connecting a laptop computer to a docking
station? (Choose two.)

Mobility is increased.

Less power is required.

An external monitor can be used.***

More wireless security options are available.

Alternate connectivity options may be available***.

13
What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?

tape drive

hard drive***

optical drive (DVD)

floppy disk drive

14
Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose
three.)

operating system

network

laptop***

desktop***

Windows

mainframe***

15
Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral
device? (Choose two.)

Download and install the most current driver.***

Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the
computer.

Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless
connection.***

Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one
where it will be used.

Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is
compatible with the PC vendor.

16

If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you
should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)

Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if
available.***

Verify that all cables are connected properly.***

Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected
to the peripheral.

Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.***

Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating
normally.

Reload the computer operating system.

17
What characteristic of word processing software would make it a local
application?

The application is shared between users.

The software is stored on the local hard drive.***

The software is accessible through a web page.

The software has the ability to manipulate text and graphics.

18
Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry
specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software?
(Choose two.)

CAD***

presentation

spreadsheet

word processing

medical practice management***

contacts/scheduling management

19
Because of the potentially dangerous voltage levels, which two devices
should you not open unless you have been specifically trained to work
on them? (Choose two.)

mouse

printer

monitor***

keyboard

hard drive

power supply***

20
What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not?
(Choose two.)

It protects the computer from voltage surges.

It provides backup power from an internal battery.***

It protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes.

It gives the user time to phone the electrical company.

It gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power
fails.***

It provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall
outlet.

21
Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?

Servers require more power and thus require more components.

Servers should be accessible at all times.***

Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.

Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

Prac final

2008-05-30T19:22:00.000+03:00

CCNA 1 Practice Final

1. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
* the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously

2. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
1022
510
254
126
30
* 6

3. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
bit
frame
packet
* segment

4. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
coaxial
screened twisted pair
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
* fiber optic

5. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
resolve routing loops
eliminate Split Horizon errors
limit collisions
* resolve switching loops

6. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters

7. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
between workstation and backbone switch
between individual workstations
* between backbone switches
* between enterprise server and switch
* on aggregate access links

8. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C

9. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
It links data to the transport layer.
It encapsulates frames into packets.
* It provides a service to the network layer.
* It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
* Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

10. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

11. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
encapsulation
latency
* segmentation
layered model
broadcast domain
extended

12. How is a MAC address represented?
four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
six hexadecimal digits
* twelve hexadecimal digits
twenty-four Base10 digits

13. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
* Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

14. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
802.11a
* 802.11b
802.11c
802.11d

15. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
configuring the e-mail client
* installing NIC drivers
configuring IP network settings
* connecting the network cable
using FTP to download application software updates

16. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
* rollover
patch cable

17. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
25
15
* 10
5
2

18. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224

19. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
ASCII
* TFTP
IMAP
* FTP
UDP

20. “CompA” is trying to locate a new computer named “CompB” on the network. Which of the following does “CompA” broadcast to find the MAC address of “CompB”?
MAC request
* ARP request
ping
Telnet
proxy ARP

21. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
a fault
a short
* an open
a split
a good map

22. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
* host portion
only the fourth octet

23. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
* transistor
microprocessor
power supply
* capacitor
* light emitting diode
hard disk

24. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
127.0.39.1
* 111.9.28.30
* 123.1.2.132
128.50.38.2
* 105.1.34.1
0.23.92.3

25. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
* frame format
media
connectors
* timing
* multi-part encoding

26. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
* file size
data format
network in use
type of medium
* bandwidth of the link

27. What does the “10″ in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
* The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
The maximum frame length is 10 octets.

28. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
bit speed
* attenuation
wire map
saturation limit
* analog bandwidth

29. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
neutral and neutral
neutral and positive
neutral and negative
* positive and positive
positive and negative
* negative and negative

30. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
* ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255

31. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
* DNS
WINS
DHCP
Telnet

32. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
* 1
2
3
4

33. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company’s existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John’s inexperience?
* collision domain extended
an increased number of collision domains
increased network performance
increased bandwidth
extended bandwidth

34. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
anonymous FTP servers
telnet sessions
* video over IP applications
NAS services
* ARP requests
* RIP updates

35. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
a transducer
a transmitter
* a transceiver
a transponder
a port replicator

36. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)

a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
* a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
* a control connection between the client and server

37. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
156
158
160
* 162
164
166

38. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
52.2 seconds
* 21.3 seconds
6.4 seconds
2 seconds
0.075 seconds
0.0375 seconds

39. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
* Internet Protocol (IP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

40. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
www
http://
/teacher
* awsb.ca

41. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
path determination
handles representation, encoding and dialog control
* uses TCP and UDP protocols
packet switching
* reliability, flow control and error correction

42. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
TFTP
SNMP
* POP3
* SMTP
* IMAP4
postoffice

43. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
glass fibers
* copper
* gold
plastic
silicon
* silver

44. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
* It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
* It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.

45. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
session
transport
* network
data link

46. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
government
education
network
* non-profit

47. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
* network
transport
session

48. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
* inter-building connection
mid-length voice
video conferencing
* vertical wiring
* horizontal wiring
diagonal wiring

49. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
* the 5-4-3 rule

50. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
ARP
RARP
* Proxy ARP
Proxy RARP

Exploration 1-Network Fundamentals-final 2

2008-05-30T19:21:00.000+03:00

CCNA 1 - Final Exam Answers (Set 2)

1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
Switch router

2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
Seven

3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
segments 3, 4, and 5

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.

5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
Physical

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
Three

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
hub
repeater

8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address

9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
14 networks / 14 hosts

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.

14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
DNS

15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 3 and 6

16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable C

18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0

19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
Star

20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch

21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-08-A3-B6-CE-02

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.

23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?

Router

24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.

25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

Session

26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?

100 Mbps

27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.

28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
Network

29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
straight-through cable

32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
Layers 1, 2 and 3

33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.

34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.

35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
Network

36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
link A

link E

38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
dynamic routing protocols

39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover

40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, frames, packets, segments, data

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
straight-through

43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Token Ring

Ethernet

44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess? Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.

45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
uses port numbers
classified as a transport layer protocol

46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160

47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
subnetwork address

48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
248

49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
media used on the network system
bus used on the computer

50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It is a media access method used in LANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

Exploration 1-Network Fundamentals-final

2008-05-30T19:18:00.000+03:00

CCNA 1 - Final Exam Answers

2	Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices? A, B, D, G A, B, E, F C, D, G, I G, H, I, J

3	Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame? only computer D only computer A and computer D only computer B, computer C, and computer D all computers

4	Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created? vty aux console enable secret enable password

5	Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.) TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols. TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets. UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data. TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6	Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.) 10 Base-T 10 Base-2 10 Base-5 100 Base-FX 100 Base TX 1000 Base LX

7	Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational? 127.0.0.1 192.168.64.196 192.168.254.1 192.168.254.9 192.168.254.254

8	Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram. 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9	Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network? address translation DHCP services ftpd web server

10	Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue? issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0 issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1 issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0 issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

11	Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.) 172.16.4.63 /26 172.16.4.129 /26 172.16.4.191 /26 172.16.4.51 /27 172.16.4.95 /27 172.16.4.221 /27

12	What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.) Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority. A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13	In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored? Flash NVRAM RAM ROM

14	A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? access point host hub router switch

15	Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission? application presentation session transport

46	Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem? IP address incorrectly entered network cables unplugged subnet mask incorrectly entered network card failure

47	Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.) 192.168.18.38 192.168.18.48 192.168.18.49 192.168.18.52 192.168.18.59 192.168.18.63

48	Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.) The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing. The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network. The network of this computer can have 126 hosts. The prefix of the computer address is /27. The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet. The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

49	Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured? leaving host A leaving ATL leaving Dallas leaving NYC

50	Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services? application presentation session transport network